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Can a joint property be sold without the consent of joint owner
05-Jan-2023 (In Property Law)
A flat belongs to 3 daughters legally. Partion was not done in the flat . Can this flat be sold to a party without the consent and knowledge of one of their sister by 2 other sisters of their 2/3 share?
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The term property in common parlance indicates the economic status of a person. Any property is held by an individual to draw out benefit from it. Transfers are made by owners themselves, ostensible owners and the co-owners or we can say joint owners. When two or more persons enjoy common ownership of a property, for example say in a coparcenary, the male members and now even daughters have a common and an equal interest in the ancestral property, any co-owner can transfer his own share in the property to a stranger or another co-owner. And that transferee steps in the shoes of the co-owner (transferor) and gets clothed with all his assets and liabilities. We can say that the transferee becomes the co-owner.
Section 44 says-
Transfer By One Co-Owner- Where one of two or more co-owners of immovable property legally competent in that behalf transfers his share of such property or any interest therein, the transferee acquires, as to such share or interest, so far as is necessary to give effect to the transfer, the transferors right to joint possession or other common or part enjoyment of the property, and to enforce a partition of the same, but subject to the conditions and liabilities affecting, at the date of the transfer, the share or interest so transferred.
Where the transferee of a share of a dwelling house belonging to an undivided family is not a member of the family, nothing in this section shall be deemed to entitle him to joint possession or other common or part enjoyment of the house.
When Is A Co-Owner Legally Competent To Make A Transfer?
Section 7 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 provides that every person competent to contract i.e. a major and of sound mind or is not disqualified by law for contracting. Therefore even the interest of a co-owner or co-sharer can be sold, mortgaged, leased to another co-sharer or to a stranger. The fact that the partition has not taken place by metes and bounds , does not stand in the way of the interest of a co-owner.
According to the law prevailing in some areas, a coparcener of a Hindu Joint Family can alienate his share in the Joint Family Property for consideration. Such a coparcener is a legally competent person. But in some cases of Mitakshara coparcenary, the consent of other coparceners is required before any such transfer.
Also, where one co-owner is in exclusive possession of a plot of a joint land and lets it out to a tenant without the consent of other co-sharer landlords, such a tenancy will not bind the latter. The lease in such a case will only be confined to the interest and share of the lessor. In Baldev Singh v. Darshani Devi it was held by the Court that a co-owner who is not in actual physical possession over a parcel of land cannot transfer a valid title of that portion of the property. The remedy available to the transferee would be to get a share out from the property allotted after the partition or to get a decree for joint possession or can claim compensation from the co-owner.
In Rukmini and others v. H.N T. Chettiar it was held by the High Court of Madras that a co-sharer cannot be allowed to cause prejudice to the other co-sharers by putting up a substantial construction during the pendency of a suit for partition filed by the other co-sharers. The High Court of Punjab and Haryana in a case of Hazara Singh v. Faqiria where a co-owner contended that he had, by adverse possession, a peaceful undisturbed possession by the other co-owners had become the sole owner of a land, held that the possession of a co-owner is possession of all the co-owners. It cannot be adverse to them unless there is a denial of their right to knowledge by the person in possession. If a co-sharer is in possession of the entire property, his possession cannot be deemed to be adverse he possesses the property on behalf of all others.
Articles | Articles 2014 | Articles 2013 | Articles 2012 | Articles 2011 | Articles 2010 | Articles 2009 | Articles 2008 | Articles 2007 | Articles 2006 | 2000-05
The term property in common parlance indicates the economic status of a person. Any property is held by an individual to draw out benefit from it. Transfers are made by owners themselves, ostensible owners and the co-owners or we can say joint owners. When two or more persons enjoy common ownership of a property, for example say in a coparcenary, the male members and now even daughters have a common and an equal interest in the ancestral property, any co-owner can transfer his own share in the property to a stranger or another co-owner. And that transferee steps in the shoes of the co-owner (transferor) and gets clothed with all his assets and liabilities. We can say that the transferee becomes the co-owner.
Section 44 says-
Transfer By One Co-Owner- Where one of two or more co-owners of immovable property legally competent in that behalf transfers his share of such property or any interest therein, the transferee acquires, as to such share or interest, so far as is necessary to give effect to the transfer, the transferors right to joint possession or other common or part enjoyment of the property, and to enforce a partition of the same, but subject to the conditions and liabilities affecting, at the date of the transfer, the share or interest so transferred.
Where the transferee of a share of a dwelling house belonging to an undivided family is not a member of the family, nothing in this section shall be deemed to entitle him to joint possession or other common or part enjoyment of the house.
When Is A Co-Owner Legally Competent To Make A Transfer?
Section 7 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 provides that every person competent to contract i.e. a major and of sound mind or is not disqualified by law for contracting. Therefore even the interest of a co-owner or co-sharer can be sold, mortgaged, leased to another co-sharer or to a stranger. The fact that the partition has not taken place by metes and bounds , does not stand in the way of the interest of a co-owner.
According to the law prevailing in some areas, a coparcener of a Hindu Joint Family can alienate his share in the Joint Family Property for consideration. Such a coparcener is a legally competent person. But in some cases of Mitakshara coparcenary, the consent of other coparceners is required before any such transfer.
Also, where one co-owner is in exclusive possession of a plot of a joint land and lets it out to a tenant without the consent of other co-sharer landlords, such a tenancy will not bind the latter. The lease in such a case will only be confined to the interest and share of the lessor. In Baldev Singh v. Darshani Devi it was held by the Court that a co-owner who is not in actual physical possession over a parcel of land cannot transfer a valid title of that portion of the property. The remedy available to the transferee would be to get a share out from the property allotted after the partition or to get a decree for joint possession or can claim compensation from the co-owner.
In Rukmini and others v. H.N T. Chettiar it was held by the High Court of Madras that a co-sharer cannot be allowed to cause prejudice to the other co-sharers by putting up a substantial construction during the pendency of a suit for partition filed by the other co-sharers. The High Court of Punjab and Haryana in a case of Hazara Singh v. Faqiria where a co-owner contended that he had, by adverse possession, a peaceful undisturbed possession by the other co-owners had become the sole owner of a land, held that the possession of a co-owner is possession of all the co-owners. It cannot be adverse to them unless there is a denial of their right to knowledge by the person in possession. If a co-sharer is in possession of the entire property, his possession cannot be deemed to be adverse he possesses the property on behalf of all others.
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Adv. Siddhant Sharma
Delhi | 500+ Answers
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How do I stop a jointly owned property sale?
Short answer: No, you cannot stop a partition. Each co-owner is entitled to partition. It is impossible or difficult to overcome. It may be possible, however, to stop the division voluntarily through negotiation or a buyout.
How do you separate joint ownership of a property?
If there is mutual consent
A partition deed is required for all co-owners. This includes family members, business partners, friends and others. Property is divided according to an investment, will or mutual agreement.
Can a family owned property be sold without one members consent?
If you jointly own a property with your father, he cannot sell it (whether to a daughter or son). When the property is owned jointly, both owners are usually required to participate in the selling process. In the event of a dispute in the property, it may end up before a court.
What happens if a co-owner wants to give up his ownership rights?
A relinquishment agreement is a good option for co-owners who are willing to surrender their rights to the property. This allows for a smoother transfer. Legal heirs are sometimes asked to sign a deed in order to clarify the situation.
Disclaimer: The above query and its response is NOT a legal opinion in any way whatsoever as this is based on the information shared by the person posting the query at lawrato.com and has been responded by one of the Divorce Lawyers at lawrato.com to address the specific facts and details.
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