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Can heirs claim share after sales done to a third party
05-Oct-2023 (In Family Law)
Person A got some property from the government in 1975. He had a wife one son and two daughters. Person A and his son both expired before 2005 and they didn't made any will about the fore said Property. I purchased the Property from person A's grand son and his mother (i.e. Person A's daughter-in-law) and all the persons in their family has accepted the deal and made signatures. But now after the sales the Daughters of Person A suited a case for their share. Is there any possibility for them to get their share in the property
Dear Sir,
Firstly, we need to check if the property is a self aquired one or ancestral property. and if the daughter in law along with her son has sold the property, then the wife of the original owner and the daughters should have signed the sale deed as consenting witnesses, it would have been better if they had signed a relinquishment deed. if none of the above are present, then chances of litigation are high .
Thank You
Adv.Vibha
Firstly, we need to check if the property is a self aquired one or ancestral property. and if the daughter in law along with her son has sold the property, then the wife of the original owner and the daughters should have signed the sale deed as consenting witnesses, it would have been better if they had signed a relinquishment deed. if none of the above are present, then chances of litigation are high .
Thank You
Adv.Vibha
Helpful?
10+
10+
Adv. Vibha A Setlur
Bangalore | 25+ Answers
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considering above facts there is chance for litigation. no doubt this property was fall under self acquired property. but as you said that person have one son and 2 daughters if the father died with out giving will then the all heirs(class-1) have the right on that property until they had signed a relinquishment deed., so get me the documents then only we can give clear advice
Helpful?
21+
21+
Adv. Shabuddin B S
Bangalore | 100+ Answers
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